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August 28, 2010

Don't even think about it!

Hate crime laws since their inception have always been a controversial topic hotly debated by all sides of the discussion.  Recent issues such as the ruling on California's Constitutional Amendment Prop 8, overturning the voters of California who voted to define marriage as being between one man and one woman; or the proposed "Park 51" project (formerly known as the "Cordoba House" project) building an Islamic Community Center and Mosque two blocks from the World Trade Center site, fuel the discussion further by introducing the idea that opposition to the Mosque or court ruling is based on hate, bigotry, and intolerance.  Some fear that those in opposition will verbally or physically attack Muslims or proponents of same sex marriage, justifying the need all along for hate crimes legislation.

That is the question at hand: are hate crimes laws a justified necessity, or simply an attempt (intentional or accidental) to elevate the value of certain people groups by offering greater protection under the law by punishing more harshly anyone who would commit crimes against them allegedly due to their protected status.  Crimes deemed to qualify as hate crimes under state statutes receive greater penalties than the same crimes which do not qualify as hate crimes.  For example, a man randomly assaulted by another would not be punished as harshly as a man assaulted due to his race.  This is the issue which creates the debate as to whether certain citizens are considered more valuable than others.  It would not seem that the intent of the government would be to consider some individuals of more value, but in practice that appears to be the end result.

Most criminal laws are enacted for two reasons, prevention and protection.  The laws are in place to protect the people from acts of violence, fraud, harassment, etc.  They explain and define the behaviors society has rejected as inappropriate and unacceptable.  The penalties are set (in theory) both to punish appropriately and in proportion to the offense, and to deter potential offenders from committing the crimes in the first place.

On what basis do we as a society determine if there is a need for this special protection?  Are there an exorbitant amount of these hate crimes being committed which require special attention?  Understand that I agree that any violent crimes or hate crimes are unacceptable, the point being, is hate crime an epidemic?  The table below is a summary of violent crimes and hate crimes by year in relation to each other and over all population:


YearViolent CrimesHate Crime Incidents%VictimsPopulation*
20081,382,01277830.69691304
20071,408,33776240.59535301.6
20061,418,04377220.59652299.4
20051,390,74571630.58804296.5
20041,360,08876490.69528293.7
20031,383,67674890.59100290.8
20021,423,67774620.59222289
*In Millions (1)



Every violent crime is a tragedy, especially hate crimes. However, the number of overall violent crimes which are hate crimes is incredibly minute. Up to six tenths of one percent (.6 of 1%) is hardly an epidemic. If you read the news these figures are likely a shock, they were to me. We are led to believe that hate crime is out of control, but according to the data collected by the FBI, the number of hate crimes is barely visible. It can't be the number of hate crimes driving the social desire for the legislation.

So what could be the driving force behind the laws? People are already protected by laws against violence. All states prohibit acts of harassment, threat, and violence. If the penalties for these crimes are inadequate, they should be revised accordingly. So protection is not the goal. What about prevention? According to the stats, though the numbers of hate crimes remains relatively unchanged, when you take into consideration the rise in population, approximately 15 million people since 2002, the percentages of crimes to total population decrease. Despite what the media portrays, hate crimes are not on the rise. It would seem they are as prevented as they can be. As we all know, if someone desperately wants to commit a crime, the law will be no deterrent.

In my opinion, the push for hate crime laws, and stronger hate crime laws are a result of politics and politicians pandering to advocacy groups. Hate crime laws do not seem to be driven by the same motivation as other laws. For one thing, the victim of the crime is already protected by the existing laws. What is added is making the same act of violence or intimidation against an individual a crime against a group of similar people due to your motivation in committing the crime against the individual. According to our Constitution, individuals have rights, not groups. Each person is dealt with on an individual basis, and should be. Criminalizing actions against an individual is one thing, but then applying additional punishment due the individual's real or perceived democraphical status informs society the government believes Person A is worthy of greater protection than Person B. I do not believe a crime against an individual also transfers to a group of people who were not involved.

People who commit violent crimes belong in jail, but to additionally criminalize their thoughts in addition to their actions is a step too far. The guy who beats and robs me will go to jail, and rightly so. I do not see what it matters if he did it because of the color of my skin, or a certain belief I hold, I'm beat up either way. Hate crime laws are akin to legislating "You can't think that!", an idea I consider wholly unamerican.



1) www.fbi.gov/ucr/ucr.htm

August 22, 2010

Religion is Peace?

I believe there is a tendency for a good many people to assume all religions are basically equal, in terms of message. For example, that all religions teach the Golden Rule in one form or another, and that common thread is what defines each religion. With the embedding of religious pluralism and moral and social relativism has come a lack of duty to investigate truth claims, and religious truth claims in particular. I believe subconsciously a majority of people whether they verbalize the idea or not hold the position that all religions are not things which are true in a real sense. That religious claims are just that, claims, and are not something to be proven true, and cannot be said to be false. The new idea of tolerance dictates that all beliefs are equally valid and viable, they are never to be challenged or investigated, for that would be insensitive and intolerant. The idea that someones religious beliefs could be false is abhorrent. This acceptance of the new tolerance has created an investigative apathy in the average person. The average person is not going to take the time to read the holy books of the world's major religions to make themselves privy the teachings of the religions, they will continue to recite the mantra of religious pluralism: "COEXIST". After all there is no need, since all religions are basically innocuous, teaching good will toward men and to be a good person. Or do they?

The terms "Radical Islam", "Moderate Muslim(s)", and "Hijacked Religion" have come understood to imply Islam is, generally speaking like other religions but some of it's adherents have distorted it's message. That they are interpreting the Qur'an in such a way as to find calls to war and violence where there are none. But is this true? Muslim terrorists claim justification for their violent actions from the Qur'an and the Hadith (the deeds and life of Muhammad written by his companions, and is authoritative, second only to the Qur'an). The question which belies us is are these claims of justification legitimate.

While there are verses in the Qur'an which do preach good will, it is only in the context of good will toward other Muslims. Every one of us knows a Muslim, or Muslims who are peaceful and friendly, unfortunately that is in spite of what the Qur'an commands, not because of it's teachings. "O you who believe! do not take the Jews and the Christians for friends; they are friends of each other; and whoever amongst you takes them for a friend, then surely he is one of them; surely Allah does not guide the unjust people" ( Sura 5.51), and see also "O you who believe! do not take the unbelievers for friends rather than the believers; do you desire that you should give to Allah a manifest proof against yourselves?" (4.89), "They desire that you should disbelieve as they have disbelieved, so that you might be (all) alike; therefore take not from among them friends until they fly (their homes) in Allah's way; but if they turn back, then seize them and kill them wherever you find them, and take not from among them a friend or a helper" (4.144).  In these passages we see the Muslim is commanded to take no non-Muslim as a friend. "Fight those who do not believe in Allah, nor in the latter day, nor do they prohibit what Allah and His Apostle have prohibited, nor follow the religion of truth, out of those who have been given the Book, until they pay the tax in acknowledgment of superiority and they are in a state of subjection." (9.29)  Muslims are commanded to fight the Jews and Christians or be subject to a superiority tax in a state of subjection.  These are not commands of peace.

Fighting is considered a virtue according to the Qur'an: "Fighting is enjoined on you, and it is an object of dislike to you; and it may be that you dislike a thing while it is good for you, and it may be that you love a thing while it is evil for you, and Allah knows, while you do not know." (2.216).  In fact the Qur'an even criticizes passive Muslims for not fighting: "The holders back from among the believers, not having any injury, and those who strive hard in Allah's way with their property and their persons are not equal; Allah has made the strivers with their property and their persons to excel the holders back a (high) degree, and to each (class) Allah has promised good; and Allah shall grant to the strivers above the holders back a mighty reward". (4.95)

The Hadith offers no refuge from the command to wage war against non-Muslims, "Allah's Apostle said, "I have been ordered to fight the people till they say: 'None has the right to be worshipped but Allah.' And if they say so, pray like our prayers, face our Qibla and slaughter as we slaughter, then their blood and property will be sacred to us and we will not interfere with them except legally and their reckoning will be with Allah." Narrated Maimun ibn Siyah that he asked Anas bin Malik, "O Abu Hamza! What makes the life and property of a person sacred?" He replied, "Whoever says, 'None has the right to be worshipped but Allah', faces our Qibla during the prayers, prays like us and eats our slaughtered animal, then he is a Muslim, and has got the same rights and obligations as other Muslims have" (Bukhari 8.387). Muhammad had apparently been ordered to continually fight against all non-Muslims and take their property unless they converted to Islam, proving true conversion by praying the prayers and joining the "slaughter".

As it turns out it is the "Moderate Muslims" who are the "Radical Muslims" after all. Their tolerance towards peoples of other religious faiths is the variant, not the rule, and as such is radically different than the Islam Muhammad instituted. Radical does not mean violent, it is ordinarily defined as "departing markedly from the usual or customary", which better describes the "Moderate" Muslims.

The unfortunate fact of the matter is that these few verses are representative of the Qur'an's overall teaching on dealing with unbelievers (non-Muslims). There are few Qur'anic verses which teach tolerance of other religious beliefs, and where the tolerance is advanced it is in earlier Meccan verses which are then abrogated by the later commands of Muhammad. Early in Muhammad's "career" as a prophet, he brought his message to the Jews who rejected his claims to truly be a prophet of God due to his inaccurate prophetic references to Old Testament events, which by Jewish and Christian standards disqualify one as being a true prophet of God (Deut 18:22). During this time that Muhammad was making appeals to the Jews and Christians his Qur'anic revelations were of peace and good will. Once rejected by the "People of the Book"-a common reference in the Qur'an to Jews and Christians-the tone of the revelations evolved from tolerance and peace, to violence and war, a common theme from then on. It is by this later call to war that Islam spread throughout the Middle East and North Africa.

It is a common practice of Islam that once a land has been conquered that a mosque is built in order to show the strength and superiority of Islam:

In 630, Muhammad and 10,000 Muslim soldiers into Mecca and turned the pagans' most prominent spot, the Ka'aba, into the Masjid al-Haram Mosque.

In 634, Caliph Umar conquered Syria and turned the Christians' most prominent spot, the Church of Job, famous for being visited by Saint Silva in the fourth century, into the Mosque of Job.

In 637, Caliph Umar conquered Hebron and turned the second-most prominent spot in Judaism, the Cave of the Patriarchs, into the Ibrahimi Mosque. (This was repeated by Saladin in 1188.)

In 638, Muslim generals Amr ibn al-As and Khalid ibn al-Walid conquered Gaza and turned the prominent fifth-century Byzantine church into the Great Mosque of Gaza.

In 638, Caliph Umar conquered Jerusalem. In 691, Caliph Al-Malik ordered the Dome of the Rock built on the most prominent spot in Judaism, the Temple Mount, followed by Caliph Al-Walid building the Al-Aqsa Mosque there in 705.

In 651, Muslims conquered Persia and turned Zoroastrian temples in Bukhara and Istakhr into mosques.

In 706, after Muslims took Damascus from the Byzantine Empire, Caliph Al-Walid turned the prominent Orthodox Church of St. John the Baptist into the Umayyad Mosque.

In 710, Gen. Muhammad bin Qasim conquered Pakistan, defiled the prominent Sun Temple in Multan, which house the great idol "sanam," and erected a mosque.

In 784, after the conquest of Spain, Emir Abd ar-Rahman turned the prominent Visigothic Christian Church of Saint Vincent into the Great Aljama Mosque of Cordoba.

After the conquest of Egypt, Caliphs al-Mamun (813-833) and al-Hakim (996–1021) turned prominent Coptic Christian churches and Jewish synagogues in Cairo into mosques.

In 831, Muslims conquered Palermo, Sicily, and Asad ibn al-Furat turned the prominent Church of Saint Mary of the Assumption into the Great Mosque of Bal'harm.

In 1193, Muslims conquered Delhi, India, and Qutbuddin Aibak turned the Red Citadel in Dhillika, the most prominent spot of the last Hindu rulers, into the Qutb Minar Mosque.

From 1250-1517, Mamluk Muslims controlled the Golan Heights and used the ancient Synagogue of Katzrin as a mosque.

In 1387, Turkish Muslims conquered Thessaloniki and turned the Katholikon Monastery and the Church of Aghia Sophia, which housed the relics of Saint Gregorios Palamas, into mosques, as Symeon of Thessaloniki recorded:

"The greatest number of the buildings of the churches fell to them, of which the first was the Holy Church of the Savior. … These were trampled underfoot and the infidels rejoiced in them. … Most of the religious buildings in the city were despoiled, while altars were demolished and sacred things profaned."

On May 29, 1453, Sultan Mehmet II conquered Constantinople and turned the great Byzantine church, Hagia Sophia, into the Ayasofya Mosque. The largest church in Christendom for a thousand years, the church's four acres of gold mosaics were covered with whitewash and Quran verses.

In 1458, Sultan Mehmet II conquered Athens and turned the Greeks' most prominent spot, the Parthenon on Acropolis hill, into a mosque. When Venetian Gen. Francesco Morosini drove the Muslims out in 1687, a cannonball hit the gunpowder stored in the mosque, blowing it up.

In the 15th century, Ottoman invaders turned Saint Clement's Macedonian Orthodox Monastery in Plaosnik, Balkans, into the Imater Mosque.

From 1519-1858, Muslim Mughal rulers gained control of India and turned over 2,000 Hindu temples into mosques, including demolishing the Temple of Ram Janmabhoomi in Ayodhya, the birthplace of Rama, and replacing it with the Babri Mosque.

India's Mughal Muslim ruler, Jahangir (1605-1627), wrote in Tujuk-i-Jahangiri:

"At the city of Banaras [was] a temple. … I made it my plea for throwing down the temple … and on the spot, with the very same materials, I erected the great mosque."

In 1543, Hayreddin Barbarossa's 30,000 Muslim troops wintered in Toulon, France, and turned the prominent Toulon Cathedral into a mosque.

In 1570, under Sultan Selim II Khan, Muslims conquered Paphos, Cyprus, and Gov. Mehmet Bey Ebubkir turned the prominent Christian church into the Great Mosque of Paphos.

In 1571, Muslims invaded Famagusta, Cyprus, and turned Saint Nicolas Cathedral, a rare Gothic church, into the Lala Mustafa Pasha Mosque, and Saint Sophia Cathedral in Nicosia, constructed in 1228, into the Selimiye Mosque.

In 1588, Sultan Murat III turned the Eastern Orthodox Church of Saint John the Forerunner in Constantinople into the Hirami Ahmet Pasha Mosque.

In 1781, after having conquered the Old City of Acre, Ottoman Muslims turned the Roman Catholic church built by Crusaders into the Jezzar Ahmet Pasha Mosque, where a hair from Muhammad's beard is preserved.

In 1923, Muslims expelled Greeks from Turkey and turned Orthodox churches into mosques.

In World War II, Nazis allied with Bosnians and turned the prominent Artists' Gallery Museum in Zagreb, Croatia, into a mosque.

In the 1950s, Muslims expelled Jews from Arab lands and turned synagogues into mosques.

Algerian Muslims warred against French colonial rule till France pulled out in 1962, after which the Cathedral of St. Philippe was turned into the Ketchaoua Mosque. Violence against Jews caused 30,000 to flee and the Great Synagogue of Oran was turned into the Mosque Abdellah Ben Salem.

In 1974, Turkish Muslims invaded northern Cyprus, and prominent Greek Orthodox churches were turned into mosques.

In 1981, Muslim immigrants to the Netherlands converted Amsterdam's historic Catholic Sint-Ignatiuskerk into the Fatih Mosque, and a synagogue in The Hague into the Aksa Mosque. (1)

This is historically representative of the pattern of Islam: invade, conquer, and convert. There are thousands of these mosques built in triumph across North Africa, India, and the Middle East. Headlines today are calling to attention of what some are calling yet another Islamic Victory Mosque. There are plans to build a community center and mosque, the Cordoba House after the above named mosque, in close proximity to the site of the former World Trade Center. The development of this mosque is raising the antennae of some who believe it may become a symbol of victory to the destruction of the WTC, and will likely be used as a propaganda tool for those who wish to do the Western world harm. Feisal Abdul Rauf, the imam who is initiating the development of the mosque has stated it is not a mosque but a community center and the intention is not to create hostility, but to provide a service. Though the developer claims it is not a symbol of victory over the WTC event, it fits the pattern of Islam, and there is no doubt it will be viewed as such by those Muslims who seek world Islamic domination, potentially creating a confidence which could prove dangerous.

I firmly believe apathy towards investigating the truth claims of religions and the politically correct approach to religion has brought a potential danger to the Western world. Assuming all religions are basically the same, coupled with the fear of being called a bigot has led people to let their guard down when it comes to Islam. Those who perpetuate violence in the name of Islam claim justification in the Qur'an for their actions, and though I cited only a few verses, the book itself, being full of such verses, confirms it. Those Muslims who live peaceably with their non-Muslim neighbors and co-workers do so in contradiction to the teachings of their founder and his commands, and they are to be applauded. Considering the history of Islam, I do believe one can oppose the building of the mosque for sound carefully thought out reasons without being bigotted.  It is a mistake however to isolate the terrorism from Islam itself. The Qur'an commands it of Muslims and as long as the correlation between the two is ignored the real problem will never be addressed.

(1) www.wnd.com/index.php?fa=PAGE.printable&pageId=194997

August 17, 2010

The Unworthy Manner

In his letter to the church at Corinth, Paul is recounting the institution by Jesus to His disciples in the upper room of what today we call the Lord's Supper.  It is the partaking of bread and wine (or juice) by the church body to remember the sacrifice Jesus made to secure the salvation of those who call on His name as the Savior (Isa. 53:11-12; Joel 2:32).

Paul writes "Therefore whoever eats the bread or drinks the cup of the Lord in an unworthy manner, shall be guilty of the body and the blood of the Lord. But a man must examine himself, and in so doing he is to eat of the bread and drink of the cup. For he who eats and drinks, eats and drinks judgment to himself if he does not judge the body rightly.  That is why many of you are weak and ill, and some have died. But if we judged ourselves truly, we would not be judged"..."So then, my brothers, when you come together to eat, wait for one another— if anyone is hungry, let him eat at home—so that when you come together it will not be for judgment." (1 Cor. 11:27-31, 33-34).  It is this passage and it's common interpretation by a number of Christians which I seek to address.  I realize my interpretation is not widely held but I believe it is biblically accurate.

The traditional interpretation of the Corinthians passage suggests Paul is instructing the believer to examine himself in that there are no unconfessed or knowing continual sin in his life.  That this makes the Christian "unfit" to take part in the Lord's Supper, that there are personal qualifications which must be obtained to worthily partake.  To partake in a worthy manner is to "be right with God", to have repented of continual sin not harboring any "pet" sins.  And that one must abstain from the Lord's Supper until he is fit to do so, for partaking in an unworthy manner is eating and drinking judgement on oneself.  Additionally, in order to partake one must be a professing believer.  But, is this really the idea Paul is attempting to convey?

In order to come to an accurate conclusion as to the message Paul is teaching we must take the entire passage into account.  We will examine the passages both before and after which will give us the proper context and therefore a proper understanding.

"When you come together, it is not the Lord’s supper that you eat. For in eating, each one goes ahead with his own meal. One goes hungry, another gets drunk. What! Do you not have houses to eat and drink in? Or do you despise the church of God and humiliate those who have nothing? What shall I say to you? Shall I commend you in this? No, I will not."  (1 Cor. 11:20-22)

Immediately prior to the passage in question Paul is addressing a group of Christians who are gathering together apparently for the Lord's Supper.  He describes the situation to be that the people are treating the Lord's Supper as an ordinary meal and getting intoxicated on the wine, though they think they are doing the Lord's Supper, they are not.  The church is being reprimanded for not having their meal at home.  The next verse (v. 23) goes on to say Paul had previously delivered to the Corinthian church the Lord's Supper.  The phrase "shall I commend you in this?" indicates that the church is engaging in what it deems is the Lord's Supper but the behavior is unacceptable for the event.

Next is Paul's received tradition of the ordinance: For I received from the Lord that which I also delivered to you, that the Lord Jesus in the night in which He was betrayed took bread; and when He had given thanks, He broke it and said, “This is My body, which is for you; do this in remembrance of Me.” In the same way He took the cup also after supper, saying, “This cup is the new covenant in My blood; do this, as often as you drink it, in remembrance of Me.” For as often as you eat this bread and drink the cup, you proclaim the Lord’s death until He comes. (1 Cor. 11:23-26).  Here Paul is recounting the tradition he had received from Jesus which he had previously passed to the church at Corinth.  Paul is reviewing what the Lord's Supper actually is.  That it is symbolic of Jesus' broken body and shed blood on the cross which is the institution of the new covenant, and that it should be done in remembrance of Jesus, contrasting what the church was doing with what it actually is.

Following the review of what the Lord's Supper is, Paul further writes: "Therefore whoever eats the bread or drinks the cup of the Lord in an unworthy manner, shall be guilty of the body and the blood of the Lord. But a man must examine himself, and in so doing he is to eat of the bread and drink of the cup. For he who eats and drinks, eats and drinks judgment to himself if he does not judge the body rightly. That is why many of you are weak and ill, and some have died. But if we judged ourselves truly, we would not be judged"..."So then, my brothers, when you come together to eat, wait for one another— if anyone is hungry, let him eat at home—so that when you come together it will not be for judgment." (1 Cor. 11:27-31, 33-34).  Paul here is giving a warning to whoever is partaking of the Lord's Supper.  It is a warning as to the consequences of wrongly participating in the ordinance.  Eating and drinking in an unworthy manner brings judgement to the one doing so.

Let me just quickly summarize the entire passage before moving on.
  • Paul describes that though some of the members of the Corinthian church are eating and drinking what they describe as the Lord's Supper, they are treating it like an ordinary meal.  Diving right into the food, some even getting drunk.
  • Next Paul recounts what the Lord's Supper actually is meant to represent.
  • Then Paul concludes with a warning to anyone who participates without examining themselves, that it is to be done in unison, and anyone who wishes to eat a meal to do so at home.
I do not believe the traditional interpretation is the correct one.  In fact the idea to examine yourself as it is understood by the traditional view is completely foreign to the text.  Throughout the text Paul is admonishing the church for a faulty understanding of the Lord's Supper.  First he condemns their party-like behavior, then  re-explains what the supper actually represents, and lastly he goes on to warn the people about misjudging the evening's intention, that they are not judging rightly what it is they are doing.  The traditional view interrupts the text by introducing the notion that Paul has changed the subject mid-passage from the church member's behavior and failure to understand what the Lord's Supper is all about, and shifted it to an inward examination of your personal continual and unconfessed sins in your life.  In fact the end of the passage clearly tells you that you avoid the judgement by eating at home if you're hungry.  That it is the food and what you are understanding the food to be, a meal or the rememberance of Jesus' broken body and shed blood.  This would be the perfect opportunity and the proper place for Paul to say the partaking would be unworthy unless the believer would carefully examine themselves for personal ongoing and unconfessed sin, and that doing so would avoid judgement.

I believe this (unintentional) mistake is due to repeated isolation of the description of the Lord's Supper in verses 23-26, and the beginning of the passage warning against partaking in an unworthy manner in verses 27-29.  Since taken as a whole starting at verse 20 and continuing all the way through verse 34, one can see Paul is admonishing the church about the behavior they are exhibiting while they are participating in the Lord's Supper and a warning against doing so irreverently.  Pauls uses the term "therefore" when beginning his 'unworthy' discourse he is literarily linking the passage above describing the church's behavior and the proper description of the representation of the Lord's Supper so that the following commentary about what is unworthy is the behavior and thus the warning of Paul about judgement; and how to avoid the judgement by simply correcting the behavior by eating your meal at home, since the Lord's Supper is not intended to be your meal.

While I agree only believers ought to participate in the Lord's Supper, it is not explicit in the text and is an idea imposed upon it rather than drawn from it.  This does seem to be stating the obvious, since under what circumstance would an unbeliever desire to participate?  However since I do not believe the traditional view has rightly interpreted the passage concerning unworthy partaking, I also do not believe the partaking unbeliever is bringing judgement on themselves by doing so.

I believe if you were to read over the entire passage a few times, the understanding I lay out will come to bear out as the proper interpretation concering the 'unworthy' passage.  Taken as a whole Paul is clear about his admonishment, clarification, and warning and correction to the church.  No bible passage should be read in isolation.  In fact you should never read a bible verse .  All context trickles down from the larger scope of a passage to understand the individual verses.  Every passage has a certain flow of thought the author is attempting to convey.  If your understanding-or mine for that matter-of a verse seems out of place in the overall idea of the paragraph, it is probably the wrong understanding.

August 15, 2010

Laying Down the Law

Is the Christian is required to keep the Law, more specifically the ten commandments?  It is my position that, no, Christians are under no obligation to keep the Law of the old testament.  On its face this is  a controversial notion, but hopefully upon closer examination it should be clear and will make sense, and I believe it is in fact the biblical position.

When discussing the Law I will limit the scope to the ten commandments since it was God who commanded the ten as well as the other 600+ laws, which were established to set Israel apart as a peculiar people, and unless a specific distinction must be made the Law refers to the ten.

God chose Abram from among the people of the earth to bless, and from his descendants God would make a great nation (Gen. 12:2).  Through Jacob, Abram's (now Abraham) son who is now called Israel (Gen. 32:28) God made what was to come to be known as the Nation of Israel.  Israel as a nation was a people chosen by God to be His people.  They were a people set apart from the surrounding peoples and nations, which were notoriously depraved, committing regularly heinous acts upon themselves and others (Gen. 6:5).  God had a specific purpose for the nation of Israel, the Messiah was to be an Israelite.  To keep Israel apart from the other surrounding nations God gave certain commandments to the nation of Israel (Exo. 20:2) in order to keep them morally sound and to keep them from falling into the same treachery as their neighbors.  The reason this is pertinent to this discussion is that the Law was given to Israel, specifically Israel.  The reason this is important is that there are promises and consequences related to obedience and disobedience to the Law. 

The Law is basically a contract with the nation of Israel.  This contract like any other contract is valid and applicable only to the parties to whom the contract is given.  I think Christians have a tendency to view new testament Christians as a continuation of or a replacement to old testament Israelites, and are therefore entitled to the promises offered to the Jews.   Unless otherwise stated, promises and Laws to the Jews apply only to the Jews.  Even Paul makes the point of making the distinction that the Gentiles, did not have the Law but did the things of the Law since it was written on their hearts (Rom. 2:12-14).

Is the Christian church a continuation of or replacement to the Jews? I'm not so certain this is the case, and even if it were would not be relevant or make the argument for required obedience to the Law.  First there is an explicit separation of Israel and Christians. In Matthew chapter 16, Jesus and Peter are discussing who Jesus is.  Jesus asks "who do the people say I am?" (Matt. 16:13), and then "who do you say I am?" (Matt. 16:15).  Peter of course gives the correct answer, "You are the Christ, the Son of the living God" (Matt. 16:16).  Jesus then responds by saying that God has revealed that truth and on that truth He, Jesus, will build His church.  I think this is an important way of wording the answer, namely in the future tense.  Jesus had not yet been crucified and resurrected which would be the event which ushers in the new covenant.  The church Jesus is speaking of is not yet in place, however Judaism and the Law were currently in place.  There is no mention by Jesus that the church is the same as the set aside nation Israel, though the first Christians were converted Jews.  There is a distinction between the church which is to come, and the "church" which is present.

God's plan was to bring about a new covenant which would be different from the original (Heb. 8:9), or old covenant, (Jer. 31:31, 32) which was broken by Israel.  It would function in a new way.  The old covenant was a written law, the new would be written on the hearts of believers (Heb 8:10).  I take this to mean one's conscience.  I firmly believe a believer's conscience does more to convict of sin then any written set of rules ever could.  I take this notion of the Law being written on the heart to mean that before the new covenant was in place, the conscience was either non-existent, or radically different from what we experience today.  I think most believers can attest to this, before becoming a believer you were a pretty good person, me too, but after you believed you are more sensitive to the little things you used to do with out a second thought.  Even the unbeliever's conscience informs them when they do wrong, and while everyone has an innate knowledge of God, it is suppressed and the source for their conscience informing them of wrong is purposely unknown (Rom. 1:21-23, Heb. 8:11).  But the unbeliever's conscience is not informative to the extent of the believer who has the benefit of the Holy Spirit who makes the believer more sensitive to sin.  History can also attest to this. Before Christ came, life was very cheap and debauchery was rampant. People were slaughtered whole sale for any number of reasons including entertainment. Since the Advent, it has tapered off, people are looked upon with more value and debauchery was increasingly frowned upon as Christianity spread through out the world. There are of course exceptions to every rule, but reading through the old testament we see how depraved the peoples were that surrounded the Jews. So bad so that it showed no signs of stopping and as a result God ordered their extermination (Gen. 6:5).

Jesus, God Himself, would be the one to usher in the new covenant (Isa. 53:11-12; Psa. 22:25-29; Zech. 12:10; Luke 22:20; 1 Cor. 11:25).  Once the new is in place, the old is done away with and obsolete (Heb. 8:13, 2 Cor. 3:6).  This means is it done with, there is no more obligation to fulfill the Law (Rom. 7:6).  There was even some debate in the early church, that some new believers had claimed it was necessary to keep the Law of Moses (Acts 15:5), and a letter was written in response claiming they, the Apostles, gave no such instruction (Acts 15:24), and advising they not be burdened beyond the essentials of abstaining from "things sacrificed to idols and from blood and from things strangled and from fornication; if you keep yourselves free from such things, you will do well. Farewell" (Acts 15:29).  In fact, the Apostles questioned speaking of the Law of Moses, "Now therefore why do you put God to the test by placing upon the neck of the disciples a yoke which neither our fathers nor we have been able to bear?" (Acts 15:10).  Certainly if obliged obedience to the Law was intended for the Christian church it would have been upheld here. Now that the new covenant is in place, not even the Jews, with whom God made the original covenant, are under the obligation to fulfil the Law.  Jesus fulfilled the Law perfectly by not once violating the Law (Heb. 7:27), and made the required sacrifice once and for all.

Now some might take exception with this line of reasoning thinking I am advocating or defending the idea of "carnal Christianity", not being obliged to the law means free reign to live a life of sin.  Once a person has truly been regenerated becoming a believer, there is a desire to refrain from the life of sin to which he was once accustomed.  By this I do not mean Christians do not sin, but the Christian is inwardly convicted of the sin he once abounded.  The sensitivity to sin increases with the indwelling of the Holy Spirit and though the Christian may sin, he does not want to, feels remorse when he does, and has a desire to repent (Rom. 7:15-21).  The Law then is kept accidentally.  It is kept out of love and thankfulness to God for His redemption.  Keeping the Law begins to come naturally, though not perfectly, after being born again.  Jesus himself says "If you love Me, you will keep My commandments" (John 14:15).  Jesus here is saying, if you are someone who loves Him, you will keep the commandments.  This is a descriptive verse not prescriptive.  Jesus is not saying that those who claim to love Him must keep His commandments, but rather that the people who do in fact love Him will keep them.

What about Matthew 5:17-18, "Do not think that I came to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I did not come to abolish but to fulfill. For truly I say to you, until heaven and earth pass away, not the smallest letter or stroke shall pass from the Law until all is accomplished."?  In this passage is Jesus teaching the Law is in effect and will never pass away?  It is true He did not come to destroy the law, which He did not, the Law was not abolished, it was completed.  Before the crucifixion/resurrection the Law was still in effect and required to be obeyed by the Jews.  Jesus was under the obligation to obey the law Himself (Gal. 4:4), which He did to perfection. Jesus' perfect keeping of the Law, His being crucified for the sins of man, and His resurrection from the dead conquering the effects of sin is the "until all is accomplished" to which He is referring, remember His words on the Cross "it is finished" (John 19:30).  The Greek word used in the passage, "tetelestai" is a word used in the first century to indicate that a contractual obligation has been fulfilled.  It was a release of the debtee to the debtor, the old covenant is now finished and the new is in effect.

I believe it is widely overlooked by Christians that many of Jesus' teachings, generally speaking, were to Jews.  Jesus was not sent to the whole world, but only to the lost sheep of Israel (Matt. 15:24), therefore His message and His audience consisted mainly of Jews who were under the Law.  Before Jesus death and resurrection the old covenant, which was the required obedience of the Law, was still in place.  It is not until after His resurrection that the obligation is removed and abolished and the new covenant is under effect.  It is for this reason that a passage like Matthew 22:35-40, And of them, lawyer, asked Him a question, testing Him, “Teacher, which is the great commandment in the Law?” And He said to him, "You shall love the Lord your God with all your heart, and with all your soul, and with all your mind. This is the great and foremost commandment. The second is like it, ‘You shall love your neighbor as yourself.’ On these two commandments depend the whole Law and the Prophets." is why it appears that Jesus is endorsing adherence to the Law.  Now there are a few ways of looking at this. First, Jesus is answering a question posed to Him by an individual. I would answer that question the same way Jesus did.  Just because Jesus answered the question that way, in that time, under that circumstance, does not mean it applies to us today. It was a Jewish man asking a Jewish teacher about the Jewish Law. One could ask me what the greatest traffic law is and I could give a similar answer. But traffic laws apply only to people who are driving. If I don’t drive, traffic laws don’t apply to me. Context is everything. Again pre-crucifixion/resurrection the Law was still in effect. The man inquiring of Jesus called Him "Teacher", which implies the man was a Jew, I do not think a gentile would seek Jesus for religious or theological teaching of the Jewish Law, and thus Jesus’ answer makes perfect sense when the context is taken into consideration.  See the parallel passage in Mark 12:28-33 where the man inquiring of Jesus references Deut. 6:4-5, further indicating it was in part a Jewish theological discussion.

The Christian is not obliged to keep the Law, but will out of love and conviction from the Holy Spirit.  In the same way I am not obligated to rub my wife's feet after a long day but will out of love for her; and she is not obligated to bake my favorite blue berry muffins for me, but out of love will.  Likewise the believer keeps the Law out of love for God not obligation.  The believer by being born again is given a new nature and is no longer a slave to sin.  Having this new nature, he does the things of the Law because it is written on his heart and out of the love for God.  It is not obedience to the Law I take umbrage with, after all not murdering and stealing are good things.  It is the imposed obligation on the part of some believers.  The Mosaic Law was a covenant made to a specific group of people, the descendants of Abraham, for a specific purpose.  Now that a new covenant is in place, the old is obsolete and done away with, and even the Jews are under no obligation to it.  Context is the key to understanding the promises of the bible, carefully reading the surrounding passages of a given text will help you to understand the theology of the bible.

August 8, 2010

77% Fact or Fallacy

Recently in my mail box I received a political mailing from gubernatorial candidate Ned Lamont on which he cited a statistic which I knew to be technically true, but functionally false. His ad claims that women earn 77% that of men and he pledged to end the disparity. The unfortunate thing about statistics is legitimate statistics can be easily used to mislead by just overlooking a point or two (I urge the reader to overlook the irony as I cite multiple statistics). So while technically a statistic can be true, in light of the full scope of evidence the conclusion is skewed. This number, 77% jumped right out at me since not long ago I had read on this issue and found my self surprised by the number, but after being exposed to the rest of the story I was able to understand there were reasons for the apparent disparity and low and behold it was not due to the kinds discrimination Mr. Lamont alluded to. I understand this topic can create controversy, but I see no reason why it must create controversy. With an open mind and careful thought a reasonable conclusion can be reached with a little effort and understanding.

In fact there are evenhanded reasons as to why the disparity is what it is. What Mr. Lamont fails to reveal, women do not tend to seek vocations which tend to pay the highest wages, and when they do the women in those positions are in far less proportion, which in itself will bring down averages. According to the U.S. Census bureau women make up 74% of “clerical and kindred” occupations while only 5% of “transport equipment operatives”, put another way they are more likely to be working at a desk than behind the wheel. It has been long the way of the work force that physical work demands higher pay than does the average office job. This fact also has its part in lowering averages. Women comprise less than 4% of construction extraction maintenance, less than 3 % construction workers or loggers, less than 2% roofers and masons, and less than 1% of mechanics and technicians who service heavy vehicles and mobile equipment(1).

While it is true that men make up 54% of the overall workforce, they account for 92% of job related death(2). Men tend to work at more dangerous jobs than do women, and as a result those high risk jobs are compensated higher than average. Women generally speaking avoid the high risk, highly physical occupations, which tend to be the highest paying. The trend the statistics bear out is women plan and prepare for motherhood when choosing careers, they purposely (subconsciously or intentionally) choose those jobs that are less physical.

Even taking into consideration the less physical jobs and comparing men and women on a more equal comparison, motherhood is a factor. When women take time off from work to care for their children before they reach school age, that leave comes with (for lack of a better term) consequences. In many jobs seniority accrual is halted, along with pay raises. The more children a woman has the fewer years of job experience she has at her particular vocation. Tax accountants and computer programmers and technicians to name a few are jobs where there is constant updates in technologies, and it really could be left unsaid, but the vast changes to tax laws which go into effect every year is insane. To miss time for raising children in these occupations would set one back far behind one’s colleagues. For example, a physicist would lose one half their value of knowledge in 4 years; it would take an English teacher 25 years to lose half the value. This would explain why women tend to work in fields with low obsolescence. In fact in 2005, women accounted for 60% of the doctoral degrees in education while only 20% of engineering(3).

Whether you would agree that women should take the time off rather than men is irrelevant to what does happen. Women generally speaking, plan to take time off from work to care for children, while men plan to work more hours to take more money home to make up for lost income when the mother is caring for his children. So when women do work in the same fields as men, attorneys for example, they tend to do so in different capacities. The propensity for women to be attorneys at law firms which handle large work loads which demand long hours working on cases, or clients that require spontaneous attention is low. But civil law and working for governments and other companies where 9-5 hours are all that is necessary, the propensity is higher. So even while working in the same field, the pay, when simply looking at the bottom figure, is going to show men more often at the highest earnings. A survey of people whose earnings were in the top 6% showed that 63% of those worked more than 50 hours per week, and 35% worked more than 60. Those numbers are hard to put up when caring for children. In fact of the jobs classified as extreme hours and stress, women make up less than one fifth of those employed in those positions(4). A follow up study of mathematically gifted young students who are now in their thirties, showed that higher proportion of women than men working less than 40 hours per week, and a higher proportion of men than women working more than 50 hours per week(5). The long hour high stress careers do not seem to be as attractive to women as they are to men.

It’s simply not accurate to cite a bottom line figure as it can be highly misleading. In fact college educated, never married, with no children, ages 40-64 men's salary average is $40,000 while their women counterparts average $47,000(6). A 2001 survey of Harvard Business School graduates discovered among the women from classes 1981, 1985, and 1991, 31% currently at the time of the study, worked part time and another 31% did not work at all(7). A study of graduates from the University of Michigan Law School found a similar pattern to the hours worked and overall income:

“the gap in pay between men and women was relatively small at the outset of their careers, but 15 years later, women graduates only earned 60% as much as men. Some of this difference reflected choices which workers had made, including the propensity of women lawyers to work shorter hours.” (8)
Another study discovered that the gender gap in pay is 5% for part time workers age 21-35 without children, 3% at full time without children, and there is no gap for full time workers with no children who live alone(9).

Part time jobs produce less total income for obvious reasons, less hours equals less pay. But part time jobs also have much less chances for promotions and advancement. Part time workers generally speaking are there to work a job for extra money, not to build a career. While there are exceptions to every rule, such as intentions of making full time hours. The norm is part time work is just that, and there has always been more women than men in part time work(10). The New England Journal of medicine found:

“In 1990, young male physicians earned 41% more per year than young female physicians….However, after adjusting for differences in specialty, practice setting, and other characteristics, no earnings difference was found”(11).
The young male physicians in this particular study had worked more than 500 hours a year more than did the female physicians(12). This trend of more hours worked by men is consistent throughout the work force. The per hour pay difference when comparing same occupation and industry is 6.2 cents(13).

Children and families result in fewer hours worked for women and the exact opposite for men. A 2001 study by the American Economic Review discovered at ages 25-44, which are the prime ages for career development and advancement, 34% of women with children under the age of 6 were not currently working. 30% of women who were employed were so part time compared with 11% of women with no children. Conversely among men, the presence of children was associated with an increase of work involvement. Only 4% of men with children under the age of 6 were out of work, and among those men working only 2% were so in a part time capacity(14).

We all know a politician’s chief job is to get themselves elected, which is only due to their second most important job of getting re-elected. Lamont misused a well known and much misrepresented statistic to make a promise to right a non-existent wrong. I think this tactic is common place among opportunistic politicians of either party, and all too often people will not fact check information. They neither have the desire nor the time it might take to do so. All this being said, to be charitable to Mr. Lamont, it is entirely possible that he is mistaken and has been taken in by a number he thought was an accurate representation of the pay gap between genders. So while I personally believe Mr. Lamont knows the misrepresentation, I am willing to grant him a misunderstanding, since the information above is readily available to anyone who wants to investigate for the sake of truth, but is a common fallacy and one most people do not fully understand.


1) U.S Bureau of the Census, Evidence from Census 2000 About Earnings for Men and Women. Census 2000 Special Reports, May 2004, p. 10; U.S Bureau of the Census, We the People: Women and Men in the United States, Census 2000 Special Reports, January 2005, p. 11.

2) Diana Furchtgott-Roth and Christine Stolba, Women’s Figures, 1999 edition, p. 33.

3) Thomas B. Hoffer, et al., Doctorate Recipients from United States Universities: Summary Report 2005 (Chicago: National Opinion Research Center, Univ. Chicago, 2006), p. 13

4) Sylvia Ann Hewlett and Carolyn Buck Luce, “Extreme Jobs: The Dangerous Allure of the 70 Hour Workweek,” Harvard Business Review, December 2006, pp. 50, 51, 56, 57.

5) David Lubinski and Camilla Persson Benbow, “Study of Mathematically Precocious Youth After 35 Years,” Perspectives on Psychological Science. December 2006, p. 332

6) Warren Farrell, Why Men Earn More: The Startling Truth Behind the Pay Gap and What Women Can Do About It (New York: Amacom, 2005), p. xxiii

7) Louise Story, “Many Women at Elite Colleges Set Career Path to Motherhood,” New York Times September 20, 2005 p. A18

8) Francine D. Blau and Lawerence M. Kahn, “Gender Differences in Pay” Journal of Economic Perspectives, Autumn 2000, p. 83

9) Anita Hattiangadi and Amy M. Habib, A Closer Look at Comparable Worth, second edition (Washington: Employment Policy Foundation, 2000), p. 43

10) Donald Williams, “Women’s Part Time Employment: A Gross Flows Analysis” Monthly Labor Review, April 1995, p. 97

11) Laurence C. Baker, “Differences in Earnings Between Male and Female Physicians,” The New England Journal of Medicine, April 11, 1996, p. 960

12) Ibid., p. 962

13) Howard J. Wall, “The Gender Gap and Wage Discrimination” Illusion or Reality?” The Regional Economist, October 2000, Federal Reserve Bank of St. Louis, pp. 10-11

14) June O’Neill, “The Gender Gap in Wages, circa 2000,” American Economic Review, May 2003, p. 310

August 4, 2010

Prop 8 Struck Down

The issue of same sex marriage is a hotly debated emotional topic.  I believe that is one of the main points of contention, namely that it is an emotional topic.  It can often be difficult to argue one way or another for a point of view when your emotions are so involved.  This does not mean you cannot make a reasonable case for your point of view.  Aside from the political aspects of this decision, it's social ramifications are also great.  Some will see this as a political victory, others as judicial activism. But is there good reason to restrict marriage to one man and one woman?

First I will address some of the common arguments proponents in favor of same sex marriage and the reasons I believe these arguments fail.  Then I will cite information people are very rarely exposed to.  This information though readily publicly available is systematically ignored for what I believe are political reasons.  I am under no illusions that my view is socially unpopular, and accordingly will be labeled with cruel names by people who regularly champion tolerance.  It is my experience arguments in favor of traditional marriage are wholly ignored by those proponents of same sex marriage.  The introductory paragraph or two is read then the information is not addressed, and in place of rebutting the arguments, slogans are offered. 

I am fully aware my next statement will at first not sound quite right, but after you hear me through I think you will begrudgingly have to agree.  Even with same sex marriage banned, everyone has the same rights and restrictions, regardless of any demographic differences.  This is a fact, let me explain.  Everyone has the right to marry any person of the opposite sex, who is of proper age, and who is free to marry.  This is as true for heterosexuals as it is for homosexuals.  The main point of contention here is the claim I can marry anyone I want to as a heterosexual, a freedom the homosexual claims is not granted to him.  But I also cannot marry anyone wish.  I may not marry a friend, who is also a man for tax, health care, and property purposes, or for love for that matter.  If I wanted to marry a close relation (as defined by my state) I am restricted from marrying that person as well.  What is being asked for is the state (or federal government) to take an interest in my sexual attraction and emotional commitment to the person I wish to marry.  As it stands currently, my marriage licence application did not have a section asking if I am attracted to or am in love with my perspective wife.  Nor should they.  Even though love is a factor for marriage, it isn't the only factor.

If the government should be promoting relationships, which it does through tax breaks and such, then it ought to be promoting the healthiest relationships.  Fidelity is a big part to sustaining a healthy relationship.  While among heterosexual relationships studies show that that 75-81% of married men and 85-88% of married women had never broken their marriage vows (1).

However studies also confirm that fidelity among homosexual males is dismal in comparison.  Studies have repeatedly shown 43% of white homosexual men had sex with at least 500 partners and 28% had sex with at least 1000 partners (2). The Journal of Sex Research reported most homosexuals have between 100 and 500 sexual partners within their lifetime. 10.2%  had between 501 and 1,000 sex partners, 15.7% had more than 1000 sex partners within their lifetime (3). Studies conducted by pro-homosexual groups corroborated these findings, 24% of those homosexuals surveyed admitted having had more than 100 sex partners in their lifetime. And many of those had more than 1000 sex partners (4).

According to Maria Xiridou, et al, “The Contribution of Steady and Casual Partnerships to the Incidence of HIV Infection among Homosexual Men in Amsterdam”, AIDS 17, 2003, homosexuals considering themselves monogamous admitted to having up to eight additional partners per year. Other studies confirm this phenomenon: Ryan Lee, “Gay Couples Likely to Try Non-monogamy, Study Shows”, Washington Blade, August 22, 2003; David H. Demo, et al., editors, “Handbook of Family Diversity”, New York, Oxford University Press, 2000; David P. McWhirter and Andrew M. Mattison, “The Male Couple: How Relationships Develop”, Englewood Cliffs, Prentice-Hall, 1984.  One report showed that only 2.7% of homosexual men had only one partner during their life time, (5).
 
Monogamy among homosexual male couples is virtually non-existent.  It is the exception, not the rule.  Putting aside the monogamy of same sex couples, what about the duration of the relationship itself.  The commitment to the partner regardless of extra-relational partners.  The facts on the duration of the relationships fare no better.  A study conducted in 2001 revealed 66% of first marriages last ten years or more, and 50% last twenty years or longer, (6). Another study in 2002 discovered 70.7% of women married between 1970 and 1974 stayed married for at least 10 years, 57.7% stayed married for at least 20 years (7).
 
A study done not long ago, a 2003/2004 survey of homosexual lifestyles by a homosexual organization no less, reported 15% of same sex relationships lasted longer than 12 years and only 5% of those lasted longer than 20 years (8). Homosexual men exceedingly less likely to be in monogamous long term relationships, in fact the average length of a homosexual partnership is approximately 1.5 years (9).
 
Without going into the health issues associated with homosexual behavior which far out proportion their heterosexual counter parts. Stats for which can be found easily at the Center for Disease Control website.  A site which can be considered unbiased. We see based on relationship factors, same sex relationships are not on par with heterosexual relationships. For the state to endorse homosexual relationships as equal to and appropriate for state motivation is unfounded by the evidence and is done so strictly for political appeal.


1) Michael W. Wiederman, “Extramarital Sex: Prevalence and Correlates in a National Survey”, Journal of Sex Research 34, 1997; E. O. Laumann et al., “The Social Organization of Sexuality: Sexual Practices in the United States”, Chicago: University of Chicago Press, 1994; and “Sexual Habits of Americans Have Changed Dramatically in Ten Years: New National Survey Finds Both Men and Women More Committed and Caring”, PR Newswire, August 4, 1994

2) A. P. Bell and M. S. Weinberg, “Homosexualities: A Study of Diversity Among Men and Women”, New York: Simon and Schuster, 1978, pp. 308, 309; and A. P. Bell, M. S. Weinberg, and S. K. Hammersmith, “Sexual Preference”, Bloomington, Indiana University Press, 1981

3) Paul Van de Ven et al., “A Comparative Demographic and Sexual Profile of Older Homosexually Active Men”, Journal of Sex Research 34, 1997

4) “Sex Survey Results”, Genre, October 1996, as quoted in “Survey Finds 40 percent of Gay Men Have Had More Than 40 Sex Partners”, Lambda Report, January 1998

5) Van de Ven et al., “A Comparative Demographic and Sexual Profile”, The Journal of Sex Research, Volume 34, 1997

6) Matthew D. Bramlett and William D. Mosher, "First Marriage Dissolution, Divorce and Remarriage: United States," Advance Data, National Center for Health Statistics - May 31, 2001

7) Rose M. Kreider and Jason M. Fields, "Number, Timing, and Duration of Marriages and Divorces: 1996" Current Population Reports, P70-80, U.S. Census Bureau, Washington, D.C. February 2002

8) “Largest Gay Study Examines 2004 Relationships,” GayWire Latest Breaking Releases, http://www.glcensus.org/

9) Maria Xiridou, et al, "The Contribution of Steady and Casual Partnerships to the Incidence of HIV Infection among Homosexual Men in Amsterdam," AIDS 17 - 2003

Do Differences matter?

I came across this picture not long ago and I think this exemplifies the attitude most people hold about religion, even many believers of the particular religions.  I am surprised at how many Christians have abandoned the exclusivity claims traditional Christianity teaches.  Emphasis on a generality such as 'do unto others...' loses sight on the big picture. Except their ideas about sin, the nature of God, heaven, hell, means of salvation, and the condition of man, all religions are basically the same some boast.

The real differences are glaring between the world's religions and their claims, and finding one seeming similarity in their midst does not make the point valid.  I would venture to say that people who truly believe the world's religions are basically the same has done no serious study into the claims the religions  make for themselves.  The only way to come to this conclusion of fundamental similarity is two fold.  The first is to ignore, misrepresent, or fail to investigate what each system claims. Second is to assume that no religion can lay claim to the truth. In other words, religion is not something real or verifiable so in one sense religious beliefs are like ice cream flavor preferences, no one is right no one is wrong its all just make believe. 

An example which I believe makes clear the point, comes from STR founder Greg Koukl.  Imagine on a table are two tablets (pills) that in every way appear indistinguishable.  Are these tablets basically the same?  Sure I suppose they are basically the same.  What if you then were to find out that one tablet is arsenic and one is aspirin?  Would you still think they are basically the same?  I would hope not, its the differences that matter.

Let's go over just a few of the religions cited above to make my point, starting with Judiasm, Christianity, and Islam.  All three are monotheistic, affirming the existence of only one God.  However Christianity is Trinitarian in it's understanding of the one God, a co-eternal Father, Son, and Holy Spirit are three separate persons but are only one God.  Both Judaism and Islam deny the Trinity as understood by Christianity.  Christianity believes the Son, Jesus of Nazareth is God who took a human nature, another detail the other two deny.  While Judaism holds Jesus was a man who claimed falsely to be the Son of God which equates to being God, had Jesus crucified for blasphemy.  Islam teaches that Jesus was a great prophet, but not God, and not crucified.  Hinduism is polytheistic and teaches literally millions of gods where Buddhism is atheistic in nature and their teachings on heaven, hell, and sin are very different and mutually exclusive to the above three.  Ask the next Muslim if Islam is basically the same as Judaism, or the next Christian if Christianity is basically the same as Hinduism.  You are not likely to get the response the above picture attempts to represent.

With respect to most religious system's teachings, the golden rule is not its main teaching.  There is much more to Judaism, Christianity, Hinduism, Islam, and Buddhism than the golden rule.  Their differences are vast, distinguishable, and definite, and all claim they hold the truth, and in so far as other religions differ they are false, and they mean it.  One of these religions could be true, or they could all be false, but it is impossible that all could be true.

Intro

When it comes to what one believes is the truth about the world, it shapes how you view what is the truth through the filter of your worldview. Not all worldviews are equally true, so it is of the utmost importance to be as close as you can to what is really true. Religious and Political systems make claims to what is true. These topics to many people defines who they are, and being the case are probably the most cherished of the views and opinions one holds to.

The nature of truth however doesn't allow everyone to be right. Some people are right, some are wrong, or they are all wrong. Under no circumstances can we all be right. Either God exists or He doesn't, there is no middle ground. Either the theist is right and God exists, or the atheist is right and God does not exist, but they can not both be right.

I think religion is more cut and dry when it comes to truth more so than politics. Not because we're dealing with the supernatural, but I think (for me anyway) contradictions are easier to spot.  Politics in most areas are matters of opinion because politics in a real sense is just matters of decisions to achieve a certain outcome.  People desire certain outcomes, more revenue to the government for example.  Some believe lowering taxes will achieve that particular goal, others believe raising taxes will.  Historically lowering taxes raises revenues because the people do more spending and investing immediately and long term, and over time more taxes actually come in.  Raising taxes more revenue comes in immediately, but quickly dies off as people stop investing and spending.  People have different ideas about what is good or bad politically so it is much harder to determine the truth of the matter.  So in that respect in regards to political matters I will mostly be limiting my posts to discussion and my reaction to current events and what I believe to be right and wrong with the matter.  And since our definitions of good and bad outcomes and policies differ I will rarely assert a specific truth.

I think most people today have taken religion to be a kind of wishful thinking, or akin to fairy tales. And those are the believers. Atheists reject religious claims due to an a priori naturalistic worldview where the supernatural is impossible.  Identical evidences receive different conclusions since one conclusion is, in their opinion, not even possible. In some respects it does not matter how improbable or impossible their answer is, it must be correct because a supernatural answer is not allowed.  People are interested in what feels good to them, what makes them comfortable, and rarely if ever do they stop to think, 'is what I believe actually true?'.  For fear of offending someone by telling them they are wrong, or for fear they themselves might not be right, religious beliefs are wholly unexamined by the holder of religious beliefs. 

I personally do not believe there is anything wrong with being right.  I also do not believe there is anything wrong per se with being wrong, unless you do not care that you are wrong.  That to me seems to be intellectually irresponsible.  Everyone should be examining their beliefs about the world regularly, and making changes accordingly to the evidence.  There is nothing wrong with adjusting your worldview to fit the facts. 

There is also nothing wrong with acting as though your beliefs are true.  I would attribute the vast majority of "arguments" I get into with others is due to me believing I am right, and then making an argument for what I believe is right and where I believe the other view is wrong.  People get offended when you suggest they are wrong about religious matters.  I take this offense to be evidence that they themselves do not even think their own belief is true for real.  They start with the assumption that 'no one could possibly know what is true' when it comes to religion and for someone to tell them they are wrong is a personal affront. To these people there is no separation between what a person believes and who they are as a person.  To attack a belief, to them, is an attack on their person.

To close, I think my beliefs are true, in the objective sense.  I believe my beliefs are true because they match the way the world really is, and are not simply my personal preferences.  In fact not only do I believe my beliefs are true, I act as though they really are.